linguistic bipolarism

L

Lliugusamui

around the corner
I have an interrogation : why Tudor and Midland shares the same language, that we may call the 'occidental one' while the Kushans speak the well-known vowelless language of the arabs ?
Is it by purpose that Miura separated these worlds ( perhaps because of their linked but still different religions ) , or does Mira do not care of tongues problems 'comme de l'an quarante' ? ( it's funny because this expression comes from the arab Al-Quran, similar to the christian Bibel :-X )
 
L

Lliugusamui

around the corner
I have another question: why should Midland and Tudor speak different languages? ^^;
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because they are two different countries!
and if they speak the same language, why should kushans speak differently ?
 
Walter

Walter

Administrator
Staff member
because they are two different countries!
and if they speak the same language, why should kushans speak differently ?
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I live in america, and I hear they speak english in England as well. Strangely though, in Italy they speak this half-assed language that I can't even begin to decipher, much less convert into proper, legible english.
 
L

Lliugusamui

around the corner
I live in america, and I hear they speak english in England as well. Strangely though, in Italy they speak this half-assed language that I can't even begin to decipher, much less convert into proper, legible english.
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heh! you're funny !
but nowadays in USA-england isn't long ago france-england ( or the similaresque midland-tudor )
I said this because if there is no distinction between occidental countries, the kushans are strongly separated
 
D

Drachenfels

Guest
Midland and Tudor are European countries that were once one, while Kushan is Arabic. That's the way I see it.
 
Olivier_Hague

Olivier_Hague

but nowadays in USA-england isn't long ago france-england ( or the similaresque midland-tudor )
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French once was the official language, at the court of England.
And don't forget Berserk _doesn't_ take place in Europe anyway...
I said this because if there is no distinction between occidental countries, the kushans are strongly separated
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Because Occidental countries know each other better than they know "those Eastern guys and their weird cults and languages"?
 
L

Lliugusamui

around the corner
I give up, Olivier...
actually, no ! During the France-England war, each people was against the other, including tongues
the fact that berserk is berserk and nothing more explose the whole of what I say, I know... err...
haaarg...gnuuirf.... :-[
 
D

Drachenfels

Guest
French once was the official language, at the court of England.
And don't forget Berserk _doesn't_ take place in Europe anyway...
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In a Europe-esque country then...
 
Olivier_Hague

Olivier_Hague

your point is there are the indo-europeans and the couchitico-semitics ... so ...there's a lil bipolarism, isn't ? :)
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Maybe (what would be wrong with that?).

And then again, not necessarily. Just because the "Occidental" characters all seem to be talking the same language all the time doesn't mean they actually do. It could just mean they can understand each other. While they can't understand those Kushan guys.
 
L

Lliugusamui

around the corner
I.

I care because kushans are separated as in a relatively recent chapter when the writing in the speechballoon is arab. I understand it is because of the big cultural difference that that bipolarism occurs.

Ohh ! And I wanted to point out that 'bipolarism' partly because of the binarism of berserk : Guts-Griffith, Zoddo-SK, dark-light, chaos-order~
'Rien de nouveau sous le soleil' :)
 
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