Author Topic: linguistic bipolarism  (Read 3112 times)

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Offline *Gyom*

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linguistic bipolarism
« on: June 09, 2002, 02:00:22 PM »
I have an interrogation : why Tudor and Midland shares the same language, that we may call the 'occidental one' while the Kushans speak the well-known vowelless language of the arabs ?
Is it by purpose that Miura separated these worlds ( perhaps because of their linked but still different religions ) , or does Mira do not care of tongues problems 'comme de l'an quarante' ? ( it's funny because this expression comes from the arab Al-Quran, similar to the christian Bibel  :-X )
« Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 11:00:00 PM by 1031209200 »

Offline Olivier Hague

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Re: linguistic bipolarism
« Reply #1 on: June 09, 2002, 03:14:55 PM »
I have another question: why should Midland and Tudor speak different languages? ^^;
« Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 11:00:00 PM by 1031209200 »

Offline *Gyom*

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Re: linguistic bipolarism
« Reply #2 on: June 10, 2002, 12:04:31 AM »
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I have another question: why should Midland and Tudor speak different languages? ^^;


because they are two different countries!
and if they speak the same language, why should kushans speak differently ?
« Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 11:00:00 PM by 1031209200 »

Online Walter

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Re: linguistic bipolarism
« Reply #3 on: June 10, 2002, 12:22:23 AM »
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because they are two different countries!
and if they speak the same language, why should kushans speak differently ?

I live in america, and I hear they speak english in England as well. Strangely though, in Italy they speak this half-assed language that I can't even begin to decipher, much less convert into proper, legible english.
« Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 11:00:00 PM by 1031209200 »
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Offline *Gyom*

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Re: linguistic bipolarism
« Reply #4 on: June 10, 2002, 12:28:23 AM »
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I live in america, and I hear they speak english in England as well. Strangely though, in Italy they speak this half-assed language that I can't even begin to decipher, much less convert into proper, legible english.

heh! you're funny !
but nowadays in USA-england isn't long ago france-england ( or the similaresque midland-tudor )
I said this because if there is no distinction between occidental countries, the kushans are strongly separated
« Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 11:00:00 PM by 1031209200 »

Drachenfels

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Re: linguistic bipolarism
« Reply #5 on: June 10, 2002, 08:00:35 AM »
Midland and Tudor are European countries that were once one, while Kushan is Arabic. That's the way I see it.
« Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 11:00:00 PM by 1031209200 »

Offline Olivier Hague

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Re: linguistic bipolarism
« Reply #6 on: June 10, 2002, 09:05:10 AM »
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but nowadays in USA-england isn't long ago france-england ( or the similaresque midland-tudor )

French once was the official language, at the court of England.
And don't forget Berserk _doesn't_ take place in Europe anyway...
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I said this because if there is no distinction between occidental countries, the kushans are strongly separated

Because Occidental countries know each other better than they know "those Eastern guys and their weird cults and languages"?

Offline *Gyom*

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Re: linguistic bipolarism
« Reply #7 on: June 10, 2002, 10:31:34 AM »
I give up, Olivier...
actually, no ! During the France-England war, each people was against the other, including tongues
the fact that berserk is berserk and nothing more explose the whole of what I say, I know... err...
haaarg...gnuuirf.... :-[
« Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 11:00:00 PM by 1031209200 »

Drachenfels

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Re: linguistic bipolarism
« Reply #8 on: June 10, 2002, 02:26:53 PM »
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French once was the official language, at the court of England.
And don't forget Berserk _doesn't_ take place in Europe anyway...


In a Europe-esque country then...
« Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 11:00:00 PM by 1031209200 »

Offline Olivier Hague

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Re: linguistic bipolarism
« Reply #9 on: June 10, 2002, 08:04:18 PM »
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In a Europe-esque country then...

Does that mean Midland and Tudor should be speaking different languages?
« Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 11:00:00 PM by 1031209200 »

Offline *Gyom*

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Re: linguistic bipolarism
« Reply #10 on: June 11, 2002, 12:25:43 AM »
your point is there are the indo-europeans and the couchitico-semitics ... so ...there's a lil bipolarism, isn't ? :)
« Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 11:00:00 PM by 1031209200 »

Offline Olivier Hague

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Re: linguistic bipolarism
« Reply #11 on: June 11, 2002, 01:09:47 AM »
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your point is there are the indo-europeans and the couchitico-semitics ... so ...there's a lil bipolarism, isn't ? :)

Maybe (what would be wrong with that?).

And then again, not necessarily. Just because the "Occidental" characters all seem to be talking the same language all the time doesn't mean they actually do. It could just mean they can understand each other. While they can't understand those Kushan guys.

Online Walter

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Re: linguistic bipolarism
« Reply #12 on: June 11, 2002, 02:12:16 AM »
« Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 11:00:00 PM by 1031209200 »
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Offline *Gyom*

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Re: linguistic bipolarism
« Reply #13 on: June 11, 2002, 02:27:39 AM »
I.

I care because kushans are separated as in a relatively recent chapter when the writing in the speechballoon is arab. I understand it is because of the big cultural difference that that bipolarism occurs.

Ohh ! And I wanted to point out that 'bipolarism' partly because of the binarism of berserk : Guts-Griffith, Zoddo-SK, dark-light, chaos-order~
'Rien de nouveau sous le soleil'  :)
« Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 11:00:00 PM by 1031209200 »

Drachenfels

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Re: linguistic bipolarism
« Reply #14 on: June 13, 2002, 08:44:29 AM »
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Who cares?


I don't.
« Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 11:00:00 PM by 1031209200 »